Pastor John,
I was reading the daily thought on the GoingtoJesus.com website before bed, and I love it, but have a question. What in those verses tells anyone reading it that one voice is the Father and one voice is the Son? Is there a change in the Hebrew? How would I prove that? Thanks.
Leah
https://goingtojesus.com/gtj_thoughts.html?tname=rdt07-08
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Hi Leah.
Here are the verses in question from Psalm 102, and my commentary:
23. He weakened my strength in the way; He shortened my days.
24a. I said, “O my God, take me not away in the midst of my days!”
We know that Jesus prayed a similar prayer in the garden of Gethsemane, the night the mob came and arrested him. But how do we show that it was the Son praying through David? It is by reading the Father’s response in the following verses. The author of Hebrews, in his first chapter, says plainly that these verses were the Father’s words to the Son:
24b. “Your years are throughout all generations.
25. Of old have you laid the foundation of the earth, and the heavens are the work of your hands.
26. They shall perish, but you shall endure. Yea, all of them shall wax old like a garment; as a vesture shall you change them, and they shall be changed.
27. But you are the same, and your years have no end.”
Who else could God have been talking to but His Son?
At the time that prophecy was given, the Son was still hidden, though he spoke through the prophets, so there is nothing in the Hebrew to let David or anyone else know that two persons were conversing. That truth was revealed only after the New Testament began.
I don’t know that we could ever “prove” to a skeptic that God was speaking to His Son in those verses, but the author of Hebrews says He was, and that will be sufficient proof for anyone sincerely looking for the truth.
Thanks for the question.
Pastor John