John,
Good Evening,
I am just trying to be sure I am thinking about this correctly.
John 15:25 says, “But this happened so that the saying written in their law might be fulfilled, ‘They hated me for no reason.’”
I found the quote above twice in the book of Psalms, but for “their Law” was John referring to this Levitical law: “You shall not hate your brother in your heart; you shall plainly reprove your fellow, lest you bear sin because of him.”
Thanks,
Wendell
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Hi Wendell.
John was correct to quote that verse in Psalms and say that it is in the law. Any scripture from any of the Old Testament books may be referred to as coming from the law. In 1Corinthians 14:21, Paul quoted Isaiah 28 and says that verse was from the law. In John 10:34, Jesus quoted Psalm 110 and said that verse was from the law. So, whether a scripture is found in the history books (Genesis–Esther), the wisdom books (Job–Song of Solomon), or the prophecy books (Isaiah–Malachi), it is considered to be from the law.
Pastor John
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