John,
I have a couple questions/comments about some recent Bible study:
In 1Peter 3:20, it (KJV) says, “…Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.” I understand that, in the next verse, “the like figure” is referring to the ark. But why does the KJV say “by water” instead of “through water” or “through the water” like other translations do? “By water” makes it sound like it was the water that saved them, and then the “like figure” would be referring to water baptism.
I bring this up because in the last few days’ TFT’s, I’ve noticed the series on errors in the KJV. Would this also be an intentional mistranslation in the KJV, to make it seem as though water baptism is the baptism we need (or at least that we need water baptism in addition to, or in order to receive, Spirit baptism)?
===================
Some may be shocked at your question, Vince, but it is not unreasonable for you to wonder if the KJV translators were carefully manipulating a verse to promote their Christian baptism. The same translators imposed the word “Easter” into the book of Acts to promote their holy day agenda, and they butchered the translation of Philippians 2:6 in order to promote their Trinitarian doctrine. Such intentional bending of the scriptures may be the case here, as well, but it is less obvious if that is the case. The truth, as you say, is that the ark, not the water, saved Noah and his family, and Peter’s words make that abundantly clear. A good translation would be “and they were rescued through the water”. Why anyone would not translate the verse that way would be difficult to say.
===================
Also, when I read verse 21, I was curious to learn what Christian commentaries said. It seems obvious to me that this verse is simply a clarification by Peter that water baptism is NOT the baptism that matters. It seems that this verse is used by some Christians to show that Spirit baptism happens concurrently with water baptism. The RSV translation is the one that seemed to be referred to often, but this translation appears to have it backwards:
RSV: “Baptism, which corresponds to this, now saves you, not as a removal of dirt from the body but as an appeal to God for a clear conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ.”
KJV: “The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ.”
Am I reading this difference correctly? RSV is saying that baptism is an appeal to God for a clear conscience. KJV [correctly] says that baptism is the answer from God in response to our clear conscience [repentance].
Thank you,
Vince
===================
Yes, you are sensing the RSV translators’ attempt to endorse the only baptism which those translators know: the baptism in water known as Christian baptism. That was not what Peter wrote. The KJV translators had this one right.
jdc