John,
Good Morning:
As I was reading Titus, these questions came to mind.
In the following verse, who did God promise it to? Am I reading this correctly?
In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world began.”
==============
He promised it to us. The fact that we weren’t there yet didn’t seem to matter to God at all. He knew that in time, we would be.
===============
I am not sure I understand “not answering again” in this verse:
Exhort servants to be obedient unto their own masters, and to please them well in all things; not answering again”
================
That just means “not back-talking”. You will see that when you read my translation. We are sending it to you today. Here is that verse from my translation:
Titus 2:9. Slaves are to be subject to their own masters, to be well-pleasing to them in everything, not back-talking…
================
I am not sure I understand this that Paul said about Moses. Moses did fear the wrath of the King? (I must be missing it here)
By faith he forsook Egypt, not fearing the wrath of the king: for he endured, as seeing him who is invisible.”
================
Yes, Moses feared Pharaoh enough to flee Egypt, but he did not fear him so much that he would stand by and allow an Egyptian to abuse a Hebrew slave. That is what Paul is talking about.
=================
How does the following verse line up with what Davis said: “In sin my mother conceived me”?
Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge.”
Thanks, Wendell
============
The fact that there is no sin in a child being conceived in wedlock does not negate the reality that the child that is conceived has a sinful human nature. The sin is still there, in the nature of the people involved (man, wife, baby), regardless of the fact that “marriage is honorable and the bed undefiled” in God’s sight.
Pastor John