The Day of Atonements and the two sin offerings

Hi,

I have a few questions related to Leviticus 16 pertaining to the sin offerings:

Aaron completes the two atonements via the blood of the sin offerings for himself and his house (a bullock), and then for the congregation of the children of Israel in the Most Holy Room (blood of a goat; Lev. 16:5-6, 11-12)

- Aaron offers the blood of the sin offering for himself and his house in the Most Holy Room
  - What do the coals and incense of the bullock represent that were between Aaron and God? (16:11-12)
  - The incense would be the prayer of the saints, right? (Rev 8:3)
  - I expected this verse to say “ashes”, as in the purification rituals; but, since it is coals, the only verses I see related to atonement with coals is Isaiah 6:6-7.

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We know the incense in Revelation represents the prayers of the saints because the angel told John they did. That was the daily incense Aaron offered on the gold alter before the veil in the tabernacle. This incense may be different. We would have to have another revelation to know if it, too, represents the prayers of saints.

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- Then, Aaron offers blood for atonement of the sins for the congregation of the house of Israel with a goat
  - The goat is slaughtered after the bullock, and there’s no ashes/incense requirement described in this offering on the mercy seat.

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No ashes/incense was mentioned in that part of the text, but God did tell Moses that Aaron was to do with the goat’s blood “just as he did with the blood of the bullock.” So, I think it is safe to assume the same process was followed.

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If Aaron represents Jesus as our High Priest and Jesus made atonement for sins with the first sacrifice for himself and his house:
- What part of his kingdom is Jesus making atonement for specifically with each of these offerings?
  - Is the first one for the new covenant saints and the second one for the old covenant saints (or is the the first one is for the Gentiles and the second one is for the Jews?)

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First, let me point out that although Jesus was without sin, that truth does not mean he had no need to offer blood for himself as well as his “house”. As I show in God Had a Son before Mary Did, (Going to Jesus.com – God Had A Son Before Mary Did) the Son of God felt acutely the sinfulness of the flesh he had taken on.

Secondly, Aaron had to sprinkle that blood for his house because he was going to die, and someone from his house would have to succeed him as high priest. Jesus will never die, so in that case, the blood was offered before God entirely for himself.

And lastly, “the people” would refer to everyone who belongs or has ever belonged to God’s people, whether in the Old Testament, or before it, like Melchizedek, or now, in this eternal covenant.

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Perhaps I have dug a hole that I need to jump out of immediately, or I’m completely misunderstanding the shadowing context here, please let me know!

Thanks,

Wendy

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Those are very good questions, Wendy. Thank you for them. Keep reading and thinking about the Scriptures; it is well worth the time and effort. As God said through Isaiah (45:19), “I have not said in vain to the seed of Jacob, ‘Seek me!’” And through Jeremiah (33:3): “Call upon me, and I will answer you, and I will show you great, inaccessible things that you do not know.” And, of course, Jesus (Mt. 7:7): “Ask, and it shall be given to you; seek, and you shall find; knock, and it shall be opened to you.”

Pastor John