Hey John,
Which version are you using? You wrote and said that the word “devil” is never used in the Gospel of Mark, but I found the word in Mark (KJV) 5:15, 16 and 18, and 7:29-30. Am I missing something? Are you speaking of the Greek? Thanks.
Jim K
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Hi Jim.
Thanks for asking.
Yes, I was speaking of the Greek word for the “devil”, or “slanderer”. This is one of those mistranslations in the KJV which can lead to a misunderstanding. There is only one “devil”, but to speak of someone being possessed by “devils”, as the KJV does, makes it seem otherwise.
None of the words in the verses you mentioned should have been translated “devil” or “devils”; instead, they should be “demon” or “demons”, and they are “demons” in every modern version of the New Testament. The word for “demons” is a completely different word from diabolos, the word of “devil”.
jdc