Pastor John,
What did Jesus mean when he called himself “Son of man” in Mark 2:10: “So that you might know that the Son of man has the authority on earth to forgive sins.” He was saying that he had authority to forgive sins, so why didn’t he call himself Son of God?
Margaret
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Hi Margaret.
In the Bible, “Son of man” appears to have been a common way of saying “human”. God calls Ezekiel, “son of man” a number of times. (“You human”.) For another example, John said in Revelation 1 that the heavenly being whom he saw standing in the midst of the golden candlesticks was “like a son of man”; that is, having the form of a human. Some translations actually say it that way, or something like it. So, that may have been what Jesus was thinking, at least sometimes.
Jesus’ use of the term, “Son of man” in connection with his being able to forgive sins has something to do with the fact that he has shared our sad, mortal state. Compare that idea with what the author of Hebrews said:
Hebrews 5
- For every high priest, being taken from among men, is ordained on behalf of men in matters pertaining to God, that he may offer both gifts and sacrifices for sins,
- being able to deal gently with the ignorant and misguided because he, too, is encompassed with weakness,
- for which reason he ought to make offerings for sins for himself as well as for the people.
Hope that helps!
Pastor John